I’m confused by a lot of what you said, in particular that it’s conjecture that it’s conjecture that there was no individual right prior to Heller. That’s just case law?
Would you mind pointing out all that you are confused with?
in particular that it’s conjecture that it’s conjecture that there was no individual right prior to Heller. That’s just case law?
Would you mind citing case law? I said that it is conjecture because it was an argument without premise. You now mentioning that you are basing the argument on the premise that there is case law which supports it is in the right direction, but I would be curious to know what case law you are referencing.
If there’s no case law, then what makes you claim that there was no individual right prior to Heller? You can’t know what the legal standard was without precedent.
I’m confused by a lot of what you said, in particular that it’s conjecture that it’s conjecture that there was no individual right prior to Heller. That’s just case law?
Would you mind pointing out all that you are confused with?
Would you mind citing case law? I said that it is conjecture because it was an argument without premise. You now mentioning that you are basing the argument on the premise that there is case law which supports it is in the right direction, but I would be curious to know what case law you are referencing.
gestures to all the nonexistent case law
If there’s no case law, then what makes you claim that there was no individual right prior to Heller? You can’t know what the legal standard was without precedent.