If a judge is called ‘corrupt’ by a defendant outside court in front of the media, or if something more unambiguously libelous is said, can the judge sue the defendant?

  • stinerman [Ohio]
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    4
    ·
    edit-2
    25 days ago

    No it is not. You can appeal if the judge was biased before he was assigned the case. After he takes the case if he becomes “biased” because you called him names and defamed him…no. If you could, every defendant would try to piss off the judge so that they could win on appeal because s/he was biased during the trial.

    • AbouBenAdhem@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      1
      arrow-down
      2
      ·
      25 days ago

      What if the judge loses the libel case? The defendant could then argue the “unfounded” libel charge was symptomatic of a preexisting bias.

      • NeoNachtwaechter@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        2
        ·
        24 days ago

        What if the judge loses the libel case?

        Then you should look for stronger insults LOL

        No. There is nothing to it. Real lawyers and judges have heard it before, and better.