• Don_alForno@feddit.org
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    15 hours ago

    I found a list, and while I was indeed wrong, as there are other rebates, France is not on the List.

    I don’t know which numbers you are citing, but if you look at net contributions, payments from the EU to the members may of course also vary.

    The UK was the first country to receive a discount though.

      • Don_alForno@feddit.org
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        15 hours ago

        It literally does. France does not receive a rebate on the normal calculation by gross national income.

        France did receive more EU payouts than the UK in the past ( Example from 2017 ), leading to lower net payments. That’s not the same as paying less in the first place though.

        • TheGrandNagus@lemmy.world
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          14 hours ago

          You’re confirming that France pays less in.

          Obviously I’m talking about Net. Gross doesn’t matter. If a man puts 1€ into a box and gets 1€ back, he’s not really paid anything.

          • Don_alForno@feddit.org
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            13 hours ago

            You’re confirming that France pays less in.

            I’m not. They paid more in fact. They just also got more back out.

            Obviously I’m talking about Net. Gross doesn’t matter.

            Wrong. What a country pays in and what it gets out are two entirely unrelated questions.

            Payments to the EU are calculated by GDI and that’s that (except when there is a rebate). They are supposed to be fair based on that metric.

            Payments back to the members are not “free money” the government can spend on whatever. They are subsidies bound to specific purposes that have their own specific criteria of distribution. They are not designed to be fair by comparison of GDI or similar metrics. If there were, as a hypothetical example, an EU program to subsidize local winemakers, you can see how France would very likely receive more money out of this fund than the UK.